I'd like to know, from a Republican, if this is an example of self-regulating financial institutions.
Countrywide Financial has agreed to the largest program ever to modify home loans, as part of a settlement with officials in 11 states, including Washington.
Countrywide, the nation's largest lender and loan servicer, recently acquired by Bank of America, had been sued by the states over what they said were predatory lending practices. To settle the suits, it will provide $8.4 billion in direct loan relief, affecting about 400,000 borrowers nationwide, while waiving certain fees and setting aside additional money to help people in foreclosure and relocating.
Along with the direct relief, Countrywide will waive late fees of $79 million and prepayment penalties of $56 million and suspend foreclosures on delinquent borrowers with the riskiest loans.
A foreclosure relief fund will be created with $150 million from Countrywide to help borrowers who are four months or more behind on their payments or whose homes have already been foreclosed on. The company also will provide $70 million to help troubled borrowers relocate to rental housing.
In all, Countrywide is setting aside $8.7 billion to help borrowers.
Countrywide was facing suits in eleven states before it was acquired by Bank of America and chose settlement rather than a trial.
Does the BofA expect to be repaid out of our $700B bailout monies or is it freeing up (or is Countrywide) it's own reserved monies to meet this settlement agreement.
I ask for a couple of reasons. First, if this is a settlement made possible by the bail-out, our tax money will be used to make big banks even bigger. Second, if the BofA or Countrywide is making their own money available for the settlement, why is a bail-out using our money needed?